Evaluation Form | ATCSA 2025

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Which day/s of the convention have you attended?

DAY 1 DAY 2 DAY 3

Which lecture/s have you attended?

THORACIC CARDIAC VASCULAR ALLIED

Post - Test (THORACIC)

1. What is the primary advantage of Robotic-Assisted Esophagectomy (RAE) over conventional minimally invasive techniques?

Shorter total operative time

Enhanced precision and visualization in the mediastinum, allowing safer dissection of vital structures

Reduced need for surgical team assistance

Elimination of postoperative care requirements

2. What is the main benefit of maintaining donor lungs at 10°C during prolonged static cold storage compared to traditional 4°C preservation?

Reduces preservation solution requirements

Extends safe preservation time while minimizing ischemic injury

Eliminates the need for ex-vivo lung perfusion

Allows immediate transplantation without cold storage

3. What role does artificial intelligence (AI) potentially play in future robotic thoracic surgery?

Replacing human surgeons entirely

Limiting data collection during surgery

Assisting in intraoperative decision-making and precision navigation

Increasing the manual workload of the surgical team

4. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate initial treatment strategy for a patient with oligometastatic non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) who is otherwise fit and has limited metastatic burden?

Surgical resection of the primary tumor without systemic therapy

Systemic therapy followed by local consolidative therapy (surgery or radiation) to all known disease sites

Radiation therapy to the primary tumor only

Observation with imaging follow-up every 3 months

5. Which of the following best reflects the current standard approach in the perioperative management of resectable stage II–III non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) using a multimodality treatment strategy?

Definitive chemoradiation followed by surgery in all patients

Surgery alone followed by surveillance for recurrence

Neoadjuvant chemoimmunotherapy followed by surgery and possible adjuvant therapy based on pathologic response

Immunotherapy alone preoperatively, without chemotherapy, followed by surgery

Post - Test (CARDIAC)

1. What is the primary surgical goal when performing atrial fibrillation (AF) surgery in patients with rheumatic valvular heart disease?

To replace the atrial wall with prosthetic material

To restore and maintain sinus rhythm by creating effective ablation lesion sets

To reduce atrial size regardless of rhythm outcome

To prevent valve degeneration through atrial plication

2. Following successful pulmonary endarterectomy (PEA) in patients with CTEPH, which of the following outcomes is most commonly observed?

Worsening right ventricular failure

Normalization or significant reduction of pulmonary artery pressures

Increased recurrence of thromboembolic events

Complete dependence on long-term ECMO support

3. What is a major clinical benefit observed with minimally invasive approaches in reoperative mitral and tricuspid valve surgery?

Increased cardiopulmonary bypass time without clinical benefit

Reduced risk of sternal wound complications and faster postoperative recovery

Higher transfusion requirements compared to conventional reoperation

Limited visualization of the valve structures

4. What is one of the key considerations when using the right gastroepiploic artery (GEA) as a conduit in coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)?

The GEA is best suited for grafting to the distal right coronary artery due to its anatomical course

The GEA should always be used as the primary conduit instead of the internal thoracic artery

The GEA has poor long-term patency compared with vein grafts

The use of the GEA eliminates the need for other arterial conduits

5. What is the main advantage of using the radial artery as a conduit in coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)?

It is easier to harvest than the saphenous vein

It provides superior long-term patency compared with vein grafts due to its resistance to atherosclerosis

It eliminates the need for multiple arterial conduits

It can be used in all patients regardless of target vessel stenosis

Post - Test (VASCULAR)

1. Which of the following strategies is most effective in minimizing the risk of cardiac or graft injury during resternotomy?

Performing the sternotomy without prior imaging

Using preoperative CT or MRI to identify adhesion planes and critical structures before re-entry

Increasing sternal saw speed to shorten re-entry time

Avoiding peripheral cannulation before opening the sternum

2. Which of the following is a key advantage of endovascular thrombectomy compared to traditional surgical embolectomy in acute limb ischemia?

It requires no imaging guidance

It allows targeted clot removal with reduced procedural morbidity

It eliminates the need for anticoagulation therapy

It guarantees immediate full limb recovery in all cases

3. What is one of the main surgical challenges encountered during open repair in patients with prior TEVAR?

Reduced exposure of the abdominal aorta

Difficulty in proximal and distal anastomosis due to stiff stent graft material and altered aortic anatomy

Excessive bleeding from the pulmonary veins

Inability to use cardiopulmonary bypass support

4. What is the primary goal in managing patients with a borderline left ventricle?

To immediately perform single-ventricle palliation regardless of ventricular size

To accurately assess left ventricular adequacy and promote biventricular circulation whenever feasible

To delay surgical intervention until adolescence

To replace the left ventricle with a mechanical assist device early in life

5. What is the most important consideration when surgically managing late-presenting Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) patients?

Avoiding closure of the ventricular septal defect to maintain shunting

Addressing right ventricular hypertrophy and outflow obstruction while preserving ventricular function

Performing only palliative shunt procedures regardless of anatomy

Prioritizing cosmetic incision over complete repair

Post - Test (ALLIED DAY 2)

1. Which component transmits the surgeon’s hand movements to the robotic arms?

Vision tower

Console

Endoscope

Instrument cart

2. What is the main advantage of robotic surgery in TCVS compared to conventional VATS?

Reduced anesthesia time

Improved depth perception and dexterity

Shorter instrument length

Elimination of assistant roles

3. During robotic thoracic surgery, a nurse notices loss of movement in one arm. What is the first step?

Restart the system immediately

Disconnect all cables

Check the emergency stop button and reconfirm port clutching

Ask the surgeon to continue using manual instruments

4. Before docking the robot, the nurse should ensure that:

The patient has been extubated

All robotic arms are clutched and positioned away from the field

The OR lights are turned off

The anesthesia machine is unplugged

5. Which nursing task ensures patient safety during robotic arm movement?

Holding the trocar firmly

Observing for collision and ensuring adequate clearance

Turning off the monitor

Increasing insufflation pressure

6. A robotic case is ongoing when the system alarms “cart positioning error.” What should the circulating nurse do first?

Immediately undock all arms

Inform the surgeon and verify patient safety and positioning

Restart the console

Disconnect the endoscope

7. The most common nerve injury during lateral decubitus position is:

Median nerve

Brachial plexus

Peroneal nerve

Sciatic nerve

8. Which padding material is recommended under the axilla in lateral positioning?

Rolled towel

Axillary roll or gel pad

Head ring

Surgical drape

9. During CABG, the patient’s arm is externally rotated and extended. Hours later, weakness in hand grip develops. Which prevention measure was likely missed?

Use of elbow pad

Avoiding over-extension at the shoulder

Proper head alignment

Maintaining temperature

10. The return electrode (grounding pad) is used in:

Bipolar mode

Monopolar mode

Laser coagulation

Argon beam coagulation

11. Which area is best for grounding pad placement?

Over a bony prominence

Over adipose tissue

Over a well-vascularized muscle mass

Near a metallic implant

12. During robotic lobectomy, the nurse notices smoke at the trocar site during electrocautery. The most likely cause is:

Low wattage setting

Detached return electrode

Saline irrigation

Faulty scope

13. The most effective way to reduce radiation exposure is:

Wearing gloves

Increasing distance from the source

Standing closer to the monitor

Lowering lead apron thickness

14. The ALARA principle stands for:

As Light As Radiation Allows

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

Always Leave After Radiation Application

Avoid Long Area Radiation

15. A nurse assisting a vascular stenting procedure forgot to wear a dosimeter badge. Which safety action should be taken post-procedure?

Estimate exposure using colleague’s reading

Ignore if under 5 minutes

Record as zero dose

Borrow another staff’s badge

16. Fibrin sealants act by mimicking which physiological process?

Vasoconstriction

Coagulation cascade

Platelet aggregation

Fibrinolysis

17. Which hemostatic agent should be avoided in infected fields?

Gelatin sponge

Oxidized cellulose

Collagen fleece

Topical thrombin

18. During thoracic surgery, a nurse opens a two-component fibrin sealant early, but the surgeon delays use. What is the best action?

Keep on sterile field at room temperature

Return to refrigerator

Freeze it again

Add saline to prevent clotting

19. Before firing a stapler, the nurse must ensure that:

The reload is locked and tissue is properly positioned

The stapler is half-closed

The cartridge is removed

The tissue is wet

20. Which color code indicates vascular reloads for thin tissue?

Blue

White

Green

Black

21. During lobectomy, a stapler misfires midway. What is the correct immediate response?

Pull the stapler forcibly

Keep it clamped and call the surgeon’s attention

Replace with another reload while closed

Disconnect anvil manually

22. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates:

Normal drainage

Air leak

Blocked tube

Full collection bottle

23. The suction control chamber in a wet system regulates suction by:

Wall suction pressure

Water column height

Vacuum gauge reading

Tubing diameter

24. After thoracotomy, a nurse notes oscillation (tidaling) suddenly stops. What should be assessed first?

Drainage amount

Tubing for kinks or dependent loops

Patient’s SpO₂

Chest X-ray results

25. The phlebostatic axis corresponds to:

Mid-sternal line

4th intercostal space, mid-axillary line

Level of diaphragm

Apex of the heart

26. A dampened arterial waveform may indicate:

Correct setup

Air bubble or clot in tubing

Normal fluctuation

Excessive patient movement

27. A patient’s CVP rises abruptly from 6 to 14 mmHg after fluid infusion. What is the most likely interpretation?

Hypovolemia resolved

Fluid overload or right-heart dysfunction

Line disconnection

Calibration error

28. A sudden loss of chest tube drainage with rising CVP and muffled heart sounds suggests:

Pneumothorax

Cardiac tamponade

Pulmonary embolism

Atelectasis

29. The most appropriate first response to acute desaturation in PACU is:

Notify the surgeon

Assess airway patency

Check the monitor connections

Increase IV fluids

30. A TCVS patient develops hypotension, cold clammy skin, and chest drain output > 200 mL/10 min. The nurse should:

Lower the head of bed

Call the surgeon and prepare blood products

Clamp the chest tube

Administer sedative

31. The primary purpose of the intra-aortic balloon pump is to:

Increase heart rate

Decrease venous return

Improve coronary perfusion and reduce afterload

Increase myocardial oxygen demand

32. The balloon inflates during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

Systole

Diastole

Atrial contraction

Ventricular depolarization

33. While caring for a patient on IABP, the nurse notes blood in the helium line. The most appropriate action is to:

Flush the line with saline

Clamp the line and inform the physician immediately

Decrease augmentation

Restart the console

34. Which of the following is considered the gold standard for long-term hemodialysis access?

Central venous catheter

Tunneled catheter

Arteriovenous fistula

Synthetic graft

35. The presence of a continuous “thrill” upon palpation of an AV fistula indicates:

Infection

Patency

Thrombosis

Aneurysm

36. A patient’s AV fistula suddenly loses its thrill during dialysis. What is the nurse’s best initial action?

Notify the nephrologist and stop dialysis

Apply warm compress

Restart the machine

Flush with saline under pressure

37. Which finding most likely indicates venous outflow stenosis?

Strong continuous thrill

High-pitched bruit localized near the anastomosis

No bruit on auscultation

Normal pulsation

38. The “augmentation test” is performed to assess:

Arterial patency

Venous outflow patency

Central vein obstruction

Presence of infection

39. During assessment, a graft feels firm and pulsatile with no audible bruit. The nurse should:

Apply warm compress

Suspect thrombosis and inform the nephrologist

Proceed with cannulation

Increase blood flow rate

40. The most important infection prevention strategy in catheter care is:

Routine heparin flush

Strict aseptic technique

Using non-sterile gloves

Frequent manipulation

41. A tunneled catheter is typically used for:

Emergency short-term dialysis

Long-term dialysis access

Peritoneal dialysis

Blood transfusion

42. A patient develops fever and chills during dialysis via tunneled catheter. The nurse’s first step is to:

Stop dialysis and obtain blood cultures

Flush the line with saline

Increase dialysate temperature

Administer heparin

43. A “high venous pressure” alarm usually indicates:

Disconnected arterial line

Clot or kink in the venous line

Air in the dialyzer

Blood pump malfunction

44. A “low arterial pressure” alarm occurs when:

Blood flow is obstructed between access and pump

Venous clamp is closed

Dialysate is cold

Air detector is triggered

45. During dialysis, the machine frequently alarms for “high venous pressure,” but the lines appear intact. The nurse should next:

Check access for stenosis or poor outflow

Reduce blood flow rate permanently

Ignore the alarm if intermittent

Replace the dialyzer immediately

46. CRRT is preferred over intermittent hemodialysis for:

Stable outpatients

Hemodynamically unstable ICU patients

Emergency toxin removal

Short procedures

47. The main difference between CRRT and intermittent dialysis is:

CRRT uses dialysate only

CRRT operates continuously over 24 hours

CRRT requires no anticoagulation

CRRT is performed only during daytime

48. While running CRRT, the machine alarms “negative pressure.” The nurse should:

Check for filter clotting or access occlusion

Stop the treatment immediately

Drain all fluids

Adjust blood flow higher

49. The rope ladder technique involves:

Reusing the same puncture site

Rotating puncture sites along the length of the vessel

Cannulating near the anastomosis

Using only one site each session

50. The buttonhole technique is best used for:

Synthetic grafts

Mature AV fistulas

Central catheters

Temporary access

51. A nurse observes multiple infiltrations at the same site. What should be advised?

Continue using the same area

Switch to rope ladder technique

Apply tighter tape

Increase needle gauge

52. The most life-threatening complication of AV access rupture is:

Infection

Hemorrhagic shock

Thrombosis

Stenosis

53. A dialysis patient suddenly develops severe pain and swelling in the arm. The first nursing action is to:

Apply direct pressure and elevate the limb

Remove the dressing

Continue dialysis

Give analgesic

54. A patient presents with cold, pulseless extremity post-cannulation. The nurse should suspect:

Hematoma

Arterial embolization

Venous congestion

Phlebitis

55. The most common cause of central venous stenosis in dialysis patients is:

Multiple AV fistulas

Repeated central venous catheterization

Anticoagulation

Low venous flow

56. A clinical sign highly suggestive of CVS is:

Hand pallor

Facial or neck swelling on the access side

Local tenderness only

Fever and chills

57. During dialysis, the machine repeatedly alarms for high venous pressure, and the arm becomes markedly edematous. The nurse should suspect:

Air embolism

Central venous stenosis

Catheter kinking

Hypotension

58. Which probe is most suitable for vascular access imaging?

Curvilinear

Linear high-frequency probe

Phased array

Endocavitary

59. Veins can be differentiated from arteries because veins:

Have thicker walls

Are non-compressible

Collapse easily with light pressure

Show pulsatile flow

60. During scanning, the vessel appears deeper than expected and the image is dark. The nurse should:

Increase depth and adjust gain upward

Reduce gain

Tilt probe away

Switch to curved probe

61. Increasing the gain control will:

Decrease image brightness

Increase image brightness

Zoom in on image

Reduce frame rate

62. Depth adjustment should be set so the vessel of interest:

Occupies the center or lower third of the screen

Is barely visible

Fills the entire display

Lies at the top of the image

63. While scanning, the image appears grainy and the vessel margins are unclear. The nurse should first:

Adjust focus and reduce overall gain

Replace the probe

Increase depth

Freeze and save image

64. The main advantage of ultrasound-guided cannulation over the blind technique is:

Faster blood flow

Reduced risk of infiltration and complications

Larger puncture site

Better dressing adherence

65. The optimal angle of needle insertion under ultrasound guidance is approximately:

15–25 degrees

40–60 degrees

70–80 degrees

90 degrees

66. During real-time ultrasound cannulation, the nurse cannot visualize the needle tip but sees the shaft only. What adjustment should be made?

Advance the needle rapidly

Decrease gain and lift the probe slightly to align with needle tip

Rotate probe perpendicular to vein

Increase depth setting

Post - Test (ALLIED DAY 3)

1. The primary goal of negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) is to:

Increase wound moisture

Promote granulation tissue formation and reduce edema

Deliver topical antibiotics

Decrease oxygenation

2. Which of the following dressings is most suitable for a heavily exudative wound?

Transparent film

Hydrocolloid

Alginate

Non-adherent gauze

3. A patient with a femoral bypass incision presents with erythema, warmth, and serosanguinous drainage. The nurse should:

Re-dress and observe for 24 hours

Notify the surgeon and obtain a wound swab for culture

Apply betadine liberally

Tighten compression dressing

4. The tidal volume setting in mechanical ventilation refers to:

The number of breaths per minute

The volume of gas delivered per breath

The pressure limit

The oxygen concentration

5. The “high pressure alarm” may indicate:

Circuit disconnection

Kinked or obstructed endotracheal tube

Low tidal volume

Ventilator failure

6. A post-cardiac surgery patient suddenly triggers a “low exhaled volume” alarm. The nurse finds the patient restless and the endotracheal tube slightly displaced. The immediate action should be to:

Increase FiO₂ to 100% and call the physician

Silence the alarm and continue monitoring

Reconnect suction tubing

Turn the ventilator off

Evaluation Form

1. Please rate the following aspects of the conference’s organizations.

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Registration process
Scheduling and timing
Staff's assistance
Varieties of companies for trade displays

2. Overall, how would you specifically rate lectures?

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Demonstration of expertise on the topic
Clarity of presentation
Level of new information provided
Effectiveness of presentation
Effective responses to questions
Overall rating for presenters/conference faculty

3. As you reflect on the information provided throughout the conference program, what information was most helpful to you.

4. What specific topic(s) would you like to see included in next year's annual conference?

5. Please use the space below to share any additional comments and/or suggestions you may have.

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